ANSWERS: 2
  • In 1 John the author is not suggesting that there are only two sins. the immediate context makes this clear. *** KJV: If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it. All unrighteousness is sin: and there is a sin not unto death. *** We can expand it without losing any precision or accuracy: *** If any man see his brother sin a [type of] sin which is not unto death, he [the man] shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin [of a type] not unto death. There is a [type of] sin unto death: I do not say that he [the man who prays] shall pray for it. All unrighteousness is sin: and there is a [type of] sin not unto death. *** Traditionally there are several different ways of interpreting this. For example: some interpret "a sin unto death" to mean "a sin that CAUSES someone else's physical death" (e.g. murder), and thus "a sin not unto death" is a sin that does not cause anyone's death. For example: some interpret "a sin unto death" in a more spiritual sense, "a sin that causes the sinner to die spiritually, that is to say: causes the sinner to lose their eternal salvation". (See - for support - 1Co 6:9-11) In this interpretation, "a sin not unto death" is a type of sin that does NOT (shall we say) "automatically" deprive the sinner of eternal salvation. *** Of course one can see where certain types of Christian doctrine do not agree with one or the other of these. For example: "once saved, always saved" does not agree well with the second interpretation, while Jesus forgiving those who killed him does not agree well with the first interpretation. *** And I want to emphasize that those are by no means the only two traditional interpretations. There are SEVERAL others.
  • No such thing as sin that is just what you were led to believe brain washed April 50 2022

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