(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lord%27s_Prayer#.22For_thine_is_the_kingdom.2C_and_the_power.2C_and_the_glory.2C_for_ever_and_ever._Amen_.22) The doxology of the prayer is not contained in Luke's version, nor is it present in the earliest manuscripts of Matthew. The first known use of the doxology, in a less lengthy form ("for yours is the power and the glory forever"),[12] as a conclusion for the Lord's Prayer (in a version slightly different from that of Matthew) is in the Didache, 8:2. There are at least ten different versions of the doxology in early manuscripts of Matthew before it seems to have standardised. Jewish prayers at the time had doxological endings. The doxology may have been originally appended to the Lord's Prayer for use during congregational worship. If so, it could be based on 1 Chronicles 29:11. Most scholars do not consider it part of the original text of Matthew, and modern translations do not include it, mentioning it only in footnotes. Latin Rite Roman Catholics do not use it when reciting the Lord's Prayer, but it has been included as an independent item, not as part of the Lord's Prayer, in the 1970 revision of the Mass. It is attached to the Lord's Prayer in Eastern Christianity (including Byzantine Rite Eastern Catholic Churches) and Protestantism. A minority, generally fundamentalists, posit that the doxology was so important that early manuscripts of Matthew neglected it due to its obviousness,[13] though several other quite obvious things are mentioned in the Gospels.

Matthew 6:13

catholics take it right out of matthew 6:9-13 i believe in the duay rheims bible - or the old catholic version pretty much. the other stuff they say too actually, but they say it after the priest says something in mass, and then they all finish with that "for thine is...ever and ever. amen" the last part is in some of the bibles, but not in every verse (it's like another part of 6:13) it's in the KJV, not the NIV, or the DRV i guess it depends on the version?

I think the Beetles added it in the 60's.

It was REMOVED from the prayer before it was put into the Catholic Bible. The Pope didn't think it sounded right in Latin. Heck, I don't Know ,I am an atheist

I'm Catholic and at church we say, "For the kingdom, the power, and the glory are yours, now and forever. Amen." So, I don't know an answer to your question.

It was added by a Catholic monk. The oldest texts don't include it at all. And if you look at the notes in the Protestant Bible, they admit it.

It doesn't end there, we pause as the priest prays "deliver us Lord we pray from every evil, graciously grant peace in our days that by the help of your mercy we may always be free from sin and safe from all distress as we await the blessed hope and the coming of our Savior, Jesus Christ. Then we all pray the final doxology together; For the kingdom the power and the glory are yours, now and forever, amen.

(Sigh) So many...imprecise statements. ** 1 ** Neither "Catholic" nor "Protestant" is a religion. The religion - ***by definition*** - is Christianity. Catholic and Protestant are two of the GROUPS or CATEGORIES within the religion of Christianity. (Note that the third classical group, the Orthodox, typically DO append the Doxology.) ** 2 ** It is NOT true that all Protestants append the Doxology to "The Lord's Prayer" (or "The Our Father" in Catholic terminology, the "Pater Noster" in more classical terminology - even in English). But the Doxology **is** found in the King James Version (1611), Bishops' Bible (1568), Geneva Bible (1560), and Coverdale's Bible (1535). In other words: ALL of the Protestant English translations produced during the era of the Protestant Reformation. (Note: NOT found in the 1395 Wyclif's Bible.) (Note: NOT found in the Catholic 1582 Rheims New Testament.) . . . . So: how did it end up in several of the Bibles of the 16th and 17th centuries? This is why. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Textus_Receptus All of those 16th-17th century English translations - other than the Catholic - relied primarily on Erasmus' "Textus Receptus" (TR), which was considered to be THE scholarly Greek source text of the period. That is to say: the scholars of the 16th-17th century saw it in their Greek source text (the TR) and so included it in their translations. Why didn't the Catholic Bibles of the period include it? Because they were all translated from the (ancient) Latin Vulgate rather than from the (much more recent) TR.

Shocking! Something was added to Bible-garbage! STOP THE BUS!