ANSWERS: 3
  • In Ephesians 6:5–8, Paul states "Slaves, be obedient to your human masters with fear and trembling, in sincerity of heart, as to Christ". Similar statements regarding obedient slaves can be found in Colossians 3:22–24, 1 Timothy 6:1–2, and Titus 2:9–10. No it doesn't as far as I can work out. Ill watch this question for a better answer.
  • Slavery in the Bible times was not the same as slavery in the 1700s to the 1900s. Slavery back in Bible days was more like being an employee today.
    • 11stevo73
      How do you come too that conclustion?
  • Yes...though to be clear, I don't like to use the (ambiguous) word "condone". The Bible *permits* slavery (both in the Old and New Testament, both to Jewish owners of slaves and Christian owners of slaves). However: nowhere does the Bible *approve* of slavery. IMO, and especially in the context of the Bible, that is not an insignificant difference (but some people seem to think it is an insignificant difference). * Why do I think it is a significant difference? Because of what the Bible teaches Christians about the differences between permission vs morality, and about slaves and slavery. For example: 1Co 7:22: For he who was called in the Lord while a slave, is the Lord’s freedman; likewise he who was called while free, is Christ’s slave. * Gal 3:28: There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.

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