ANSWERS: 1
  • That's John 1:18 . . . . We see both from context, and from common usage, that (as is typical) "no man" - like "no one" - without further specifiers, means "no man [living]". Example: * No man has seen the tomb of Ghengis Khan. . . . Clearly, given what the Bible teaches us about (for example) Moses, Jesus did not mean, "No man who has ever lived has ever seen God at any time."

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