ANSWERS: 35
  • No it does not. The bible was written in patriarchal times - in the days when men actually owned women. As property they were less than men.
  • Applies to both the same. Lesbians and Gays are both frowned upon big time in the OT.
  • Actually, there are some priests in South American countries who are SO idiotic, that they don't even believe in the existence of lesbians. Seriously, they actually believe the "lesbian" is an urban legend created by blasphemers to try to prove that homosexuality is a genetic trait that can occur in both men and women (which, of course, they don't believe) . And since there are still idiots with that belief all the way up to the present day, you can bet they didn't believe in the existence of lesbians in biblical times either.
  • You shouldn't take the bible so literally. It makes no sense if you do.
  • Okay now thats called being sarcastic. if the bible says a passage sayig "man" then it could mean both. EXAMPLE: " If man sins he will be damned to hell" it means man and women.
  • Romans 1:26, 27  That is why God gave them up to disgraceful sexual appetites, for both their females changed the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature; 27 and likewise even the males left the natural use of the female and became violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males, working what is obscene and receiving in themselves the full recompense, which was due for their error.
  • No it DOES NOT SAY Men shall not lie down with Men. It does say that a man shall not lie down with a man LIKE YOU WOULD A WOMAN. Ergo: No missionary position sex for two guys. Anything else- no sweat. And the bible speaketh not a whit about woman/woman sex.
  • God loved to watch women making out back in the day
  • "both"
  • both and both should not have sexual relations of any kind with animals....these are abominable sins in his eyes...HE hates all sins but these HE despises even more...... it really is clear...just lots that don't want to believe it!!!
  • (Rom 1:26-27) For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: {27} And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompense of their error which was meet. 'Nature' in this context is a man-woman relationship. The implication in verse 26 is that women were engaged in lesbianism. In 1 Cor 6:9, "abusers of themselves with mankind" is translated from the Greek word "Arsenokoites" which is a compound word 'Arsen' meaning male, or men, and 'koites' literally meaning couch or bed, but generally with the connotation meaning a 'marriage bed' or sex. Male-male sex is what is meant, and it's listed as a sin. To be effeminate is also listed as a sin. But, to answer the question, yes, the sin of homosexuality applies both to men and women. (1 Cor 2:14) But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned. In this context 'nature' or 'natural' is our innate desires and preferences. This is the way that people use the phrase 'it's in my nature.' If a behavior or 'orientation' is in our 'nature,' that doesn't make it right. If someone is only turned on by children, he is not innocent because that's his 'sexual orientation.' We should not allow people to marry their dogs or cats because that's what feels natural to them, and it makes them happy. An addict is not innocent if he/she indulges their nature and stays drunk or high.
  • God didn't write the Bible, man did and done through man's interpretation of God's words.
  • Absolutely. The Bible is a repository of bigotry against lesbians. It is an iniquitous, damaging, poorly written rag and the less influence it has on society the better.
  • It applies to women as well.
  • A uless book that's caused nothing but trouble from the begining. Any love is good love.
  • You're right. The bible never retracts the endorsement of slavery. Paul writes to Philemon regarding a servant of his named Onesimus. Onesimus ran away - and Paul asks Philemon to excuse the offense so that Onesimus can help him. But, the bible does require 'masters' to be fair and decent to the people that report to them Eph 6:9. 'Slavery' is legal or illegal based on the laws of the state. The abuse of power is never morally right -- that is what is taught in the bible. (oops. This post was meant for a conversational deabate as a comment, not an answer to the question.)
  • Poor god was senile or in need of heavy meds when he dictated the Bible
  • Both, read the scriptures
  • In Judaism, they interpret it as applying only to men, and in fact while homosexuality in men is considered a sin, lesbianism is merely "frowned upon" as being frivolous. . I do think that the people who wrote the Bible intended it to refer only to men. Perceptions there were different - a man owned his women, and probably it didn't bother them much to see two of them getting down on each other.
  • i believe what scripture says. But we don't need it to tell us what is against nature!!
  • Anything that applies to a man in the Bible goes double for women.
  • Maybe its not seen as bad because women cant actually penetrate each other like gay men can. just an assumption.
  • The bible says a man shall not lay with a man, same to women. It speaks about all humans as man.
  • I wish I knew how to insert Microsoft word items as I have a great deal of very good information concerning this. Indeed the Bible does say a man shall not lie with a man but some information I have read on this says this deals with pederasty. Men lieing with young boys captured in battle. With regards to a woman, this is different. A woman can lie with a woman as long as she does not exclusivly lie with a woman, in other words if she is bisexual. If you should desire this information, please email me; my address is in my AB profile and I will send the information I have regarding this as attachments to the email.
  • It doesn't matter, as long as you do it standing up, you won't offend. :D
  • I would suggest that you use ALL of the passage, and not just the part that suits you. Don't forget the part that mentions: "like you would with a woman". And no, there is nothing that condemns women having sex.
  • Both,the bible says God is not a respector of men.
  • Read 1 corinthians 6:9,10,Homosexuals shall not inherit the Kingdom of God,also drunks,thieves,adulteres.If your sin defines you,you are not saved.
  • The Bible says a lot of things and if you crazy lot every followed everything it said, you'll be twisted up in a not, hanging upside, with your head up your ass...oh, wait! You don't try to do what it says and you're already that way...ha ha!
  • God made adam and eve not adam and steve i don't want to offend anyone but in todays society it is accepted but God didn't intend it that way
  • It also refers to lesbianism. It isn't biblically correct for two people of the same sex to have relations
  • Man or woman,...makes no difference. - For example the following scripture only mentions men: - (Genesis 9:6)Anyone shedding man’s blood, by man will his own blood be shed, for in God’s image he made man.  - However, in Israel murdering someone of either sex carried the same penalty. - The principle you mention applies to sexual acts performed between people of the same sex. - The Bible makes it clear that God condemns such practices,...but still grants us free will as to whether we comply with his standards,...or not.
  • My understanding is that women were consided just chattel and property .. thus to lay with another man , at that time , was to degrade a man as an insult ... it wasn't for morality purposes ... Also; in the Secret Gospel of Mark; it tells of Jesus resurecting a YOUNG boy from the dead ... Later that night , clad only in a linnen cloth, the young man came and spent the night with Jesus and Jesus supposedly "Taught him the 'Mystery' of the Kingdom of God" Jeus later REFUSED to have audience with the boy's mother and sister ... Many scholors believe that these passages were removed from the origional Bible as they INFER strongly that Jesus had a homosexual relationship with this YOUNG male ... After all; here is a guy who travels with just 12 other males. They sleep in CLOSE proximity, bathe together in rivers and streams , eat together etc .... How would THAT look in Today's society ??? What would the Christains make of THAT today ??? +5
  • Yes, it applies to both man and woman. ---- Romans 1:26-27 26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: 27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.

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