Jesus called Himself the Son of man for a reason do you know that reason?
by 
Rick Myres
ANSWERS: 9
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The prophet Ezekiel is also called the Son of man. (Ezekiel 2:1) What's astonishing, the Son of Man applies to Jesus' humanity and divinity. In other words, the human and the divine are one. John 3:13 "No one has ascended into Heaven except He who descended from Heaven, the Son of Man."
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OrangeDonRump Except for the fact that Christ never actually existed - and nobody has ever proven otherwise. -
Jenny Rizzo is brilliant ⭐ Jesus' existence is widely accepted among scholars. -
Shadowfire the Sarcastic Name them. -
OrangeDonRump Widely accepted among Christian scholars - but never PROVEN by ANYONE, child. There is a significant difference.
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Jenny Rizzo is brilliant ⭐ Easy, all ya have to do is ask. Bart Ehrman, Ezra Abbot, Paul J. Achtemeier, including Richard Dawkins, a philosopher and spokesman for Atheism, Michael Bird, an atheist scholar who converted to Christianity and more.
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Jenny Rizzo is brilliant ⭐ OrangeD, it's been proven many times. It is just too bad you can't see the light of it.
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Chicagoan Jenny - Christ and his existence have NEVER been proven by anyone, so stop lying. If it had been proven, then we wouldn't live in a world where 75% of the planet's population dismisses the myth of Jesus Christ out of hand. -
Jenny Rizzo is brilliant ⭐ Chicago, and His existence has never been disproven by anyone. Most of what there is to know comes from written accounts through Flavius Josephus and archaeology.
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God had many "sons" in the bible - Jesus was nothing special in that regard. Jesus in saying he was a son of man is his way of saying he was not divine. Something Paul (the founder of Christianity) forgot to tell his eventual followers
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No Chance Without Jesus
Jesus was his ONLY begotten son -
OrangeDonRump
Well, except for the fact that Jesus never actually existed, and nobody has ever proven otherwise. Including you.
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An expression found about 80 times in the Gospels. It applies to Jesus Christ and shows that by means of his fleshly birth, he became a human and was not simply a spirit creature with a materialized body. The phrase also indicates that Jesus would fulfill the prophecy recorded at Daniel 7:13, 14 Hence he had not simply materialized a human body as angels had previously done; he was not an incarnation but was actually a son of mankind through his human mother. Jesus’ being called the Son of David Matt 1:1; 9:27 emphasizes his being the heir of the Kingdom covenant to be fulfilled in David’s line; his being called the “Son of man” calls attention to his being of the human race by virtue of his fleshly birth; his being called the “Son of God” stresses his being of divine origin, not descended from the sinner Adam.
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Because Jesus was the son of almighty god Jehovah his expressed word his exact image like it says so in Hebrews chapter 1
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OrangeDonRump
Except for the fact that Jesus never actually existed, and nobody has ever proven otherwise. Including you.
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I'd say he meant to point out his humanity -- that he was not a divine being.
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He just couldn't accept that he was a bastard child.
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OrangeDonRump
Yeah, if he had been a real person (he wasn't - but if he had been) then, yeah, he would have had a problem with his mom's BS story about being impregnated by a god.
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Nobody actually knows that answer - because Christ never actually existed.
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Jenny Rizzo is brilliant ⭐
The number and nature of the historical documents for the existence of Jesus is extraordinarily strong compared to other historical figures of the time. -
OrangeDonRump
Not really, little child. You see, there was never even ONE person - historian, official scribe, writer, author... NOBODY contemporary to the actual time he would have lived who ever wrote about him. And there is no reliable evidence for Jesus’ resurrection, miracles, or deity. The fact that “there are thousands of manuscripts of the NT” shows that it was copied a lot. It’s a cool story, if you’re into magic. None of the manuscripts we have are originals, or even close to originals - they’re copies of translations of translations of copies. The authorship is anonymous, and the originals were written decades after the supposed facts. As documents supporting the fact that stories of a man called Jesus were being told, they’re fine. As documents of actual words and events proving anything, they’re complete rubbish. -
Jenny Rizzo is brilliant ⭐
Quote: "The fact that “there are thousands of manuscripts of the NT” shows that it was copied a lot." Not at all. The New Testament is in accordance with the Old Testament. Isaiah 53:5 has traditionally been understood by many people to speak of Jesus as the Messiah. Quote: "It’s a cool story, if you’re into magic." Miracles do happen everyday and all day long. We all need a miracle at some time to simply jump-start our faith. If it weren’t for miracles, we wouldn’t grow to the point were we could walk in the blessings of God. -
Chicagoan
Wow, Jenny - did you drop out of the third grade? You act like someone who never actually saw the inside of a real school. -
Jenny Rizzo is brilliant ⭐
Chicago, sayyys you who has nothing to bring to the table?
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Because his daddy was a d00d?
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This is a great question! Christ Jesus, “the Son of Man.” In the Gospel accounts the expression is found nearly 80 times, applying in every case to Jesus Christ, being used by him to refer to himself. (Mt 8:20; 9:6; 10:23) The occurrences outside the Gospel accounts are at Acts 7:56; Hebrews 2:6; and Revelation 1:13; 14:14. Jesus’ application of this expression to himself clearly showed that God’s Son was now indeed a human, having ‘become flesh’ (Joh 1:14), having ‘come to be out of a woman’ through his conception and birth to the Jewish virgin Mary. (Ga 4:4; Lu 1:34-36) Hence he had not simply materialized a human body as angels had previously done; he was not an incarnation but was actually a ‘son of mankind’ through his human mother. For more information on this subject please visit jworg.
BJA 
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