ANSWERS: 19
  • It's a fallacy of presumption. You have assumed that god and the devil exist.
  • religion has nothing to do with logic. It is based on blind belief.
  • Grammar.
  • If the Devil is greater than nothing, Everything is greater than the Devil. If nothing is greater than God, God is omnipotent.
  • nothing means one thing in one, and something different in two.
  • The fallacy is that the existence of God and the Devil have never been proven and are nebulous at best...
  • The fallacy is 'nothing'. Specifically it's called the fallacy of four terms; your use of the word 'nothing' has it take on two distinct meanings, hence four terms.
  • Nothing can be seen as a thing or lack of anything.
  • Trying to stir 'em up on a Saturday night Jim?
  • You're first premise is wrong because it assumes the existence of the devil, the second is wrong for the same reason. The third should state 0=0, only that part is true. The real premise would be "if there is a god, then there must be a devil. That are both different sides of the same coin." You can't have one without the other. The question should sure stir up a controversy though. If you can find a religious person smart enough to understand it.
  • There is no devil and there is no god. So neither one is greater than the other
  • The devil must have thought up this logic? Him and Azazel do that... Get all math complicated on simple issues to confuse you. The devil assumed he was greater... That's what got his ass booted out! Which then made him rule the dark side of life which although necessary, is not greater than light. You illuminate the dark with light. Darkness does not illuminate anything. It serves its own purpose which is found in anti matter and reverse polarity and negative aspects of all positive conditions. One without the other is less... But one doesn't need the other to exist all on its own. Which side you deem more viable is up to you. God and the devil can be therefore broken down to simple forms of cosmic energy.
  • Equivocation: Using a word in a different way than the author used it in the original premise, or changing definitions halfway through a discussion. When we use the same word or phrase in different senses within one line of argument, we commit the fallacy of equivocation.
  • The two different implied meanings of "nothing". ;-)
  • The fallacy is that 'nothing' can be compared. It's just like saying: You love nobody. Nobody loves me. Therefore, You love me. +4
  • the fallacy is that you assume nothing is physical entity
  • It's called circular reasoning or begging the question. That is the logical fallacy.
  • This has to do with the use of information: nothing has to do with an empty set {0}. you're saying that the set of all things of which the devil is greater is {0}, so there are 0 things < devil. later, you say that the set of all things greater than god is {0}, or 0 things are > god. The 3rd statement drops the attachment of "0" to the count the number of "things", so that 0 > god, and 0 < devil. correctly, 0 (things > god), and 0 (things < devil) means all (things U devil < god)
  • The fallacy is in "1. The Devil is greater than nothing." It really means, "There doesn't exist anything that the Devil is greater than." Once you replace 1. with this equivalent statement, the "fallacy" disappears. Therefore the problem was entirely linguistic, not logical.

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