ANSWERS: 29
  • their justification i think is john 5 25 but i'm not quite sure actually. i tried asking my nana that [as she's very upset with me for my considering shahada and says i'm not seeing the logic] - i asked if christ came not to change the law and he said son of man why would christians change it and say son of god...i didn't get a clear answer please if anybody does have a clear answer i'd like to know thanks
  • That was in the Old Testament. God had not yet come ot earth as a man. John 1:1-14 plainly teaches to us that Jesus Christ is God come in the flesh. Also, God is not naturally a man. He robed Himself in flesh. He became human, that which He was not before, around 2000+ years ago. Thank you and may God bless you. :) -In Jesus Christ's Name.
  • He never called Himself God? Then why did the Pharisees accuse Him of blasphemy? [Mark 14:64]
  • 13 When Jesus came to the region of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, "Who do people say the Son of Man is?" 14 They replied, "Some say John the Baptist; others say Elijah; and still others, Jeremiah or one of the prophets." 15 "But what about you?" he asked. "Who do you say I am?" 16 Simon Peter answered, "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God." 17 Jesus replied, "Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah, for this was not revealed to you by man, but by my Father in heaven
  • You must not know the scriptures on been taught to believe a lie. Gen 1:26 God said "Let US make man in OUR image, according to OUR likeness: Let them have dominion (etc). Point here is there was one God there but who is US and OUR this is pural meaning more than one. But don't just read one verse because then you could use the One God verse for there is only one God. Let look at John 1:1 In the beginning was the the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. Now keep reading who is the Word. "The Light of Word" John even say this is whom come after me but was even before me. How can he say that unless Jesus was God. But clearly there is a seperation between Jesus and Father. Jesus was begotton of the Father. You can not create yourself. Now let look at the baptism of Jesus because her we go again. I know here there is a clear seperation. Father is clearly speaking from heaven "This is my Son in whom I am well Pleased.'' The Son Jesus is clearly being the one baptist. The Holy Spirit is flying around like a Dove. Clearly again there is a distict different. Know how can the all be God. Clearly you can understand this. What you need to do is look at each character. Jesus say if you have known me you would have known the father. So yea Jesus is like the Father. But we know the Holy Spirit is easy greived. Jesus make a seperation between the Holy Spirit and hisself by saying also I must go that the Spirit can come into the world. Now to the comment above Jesus never called hisself God because he was showing his Humility. He humble hisself to become a Man. That is the Scipture.
  • During Christ's trial, the chief priests asked Him point blank, "Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God." And He said, "I am." (Mark 14:60-62) "Yes, it is as you say." (Matt. 26: 63-65) "You are right in saying I am." (Luke 22:67-70) These are all ways of saying the same thing, written by different authors. In Exodus 3:14, God says "I AM who I AM." In John 8:58, Jesus says "Before Abraham was, I AM" in reference to Himself. For more Bible references about Jesus claiming to be God, see: http://www.scripturecatholic.com/jesus_christ_divinity.html#jesus-III With love in Christ.
  • You're drowning in catholic dogma--Jesus was mentally ill and hearing voices--sadly there is no god--why can't we just accept death is permanent and stop looking to a god to solve the problems in this world we could quite easily put right.
  • In Genesis god takes the clay of the earth adds his essence and creates man in his image. That would make every human the son or daughter of "God". Worshiping Jesus is way easier than following his example and getting tacked up on a cross.
  • "Throughout the New Testament (see "New Testament passages", below) the phrase "son of God" is applied repeatedly, in the singular, only to Jesus. "Sons of God" is applied to others only in the plural. The New Testament calls Jesus God's "only begotten son" (John 1:14, 3:16 3:18, 1 John 4:9), "his own son" (Romans 8:3). It also refers to Jesus simply as "the son" in contexts in which "the Father" is used to refer to God the Father." "Attributed to Jesus himself ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ (ho huios tou theou) Matthew 26:63-64 Mark 14:61-62 (Jesus answers "I am" to the question.) Luke 22:70 John 5:25 John 10:36 John 11:4" Source and further information: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Son_of_god
  • Yet by his obedience he was exalted to the right hand of the Father. Yet thought it not robery to be equal to God. All these scripture point to fact that Jesus is part of God. If you have seen me you have seen my Father. Because he also said me and my Father are one. So even if he was not God in the beginning by his obedience and his suffering he become equal to God. Therefore becomming part of God. I know this sounds like basheme but that exactly why they crucified him in the first place.
  • lol..god IS a man.
  • He was quoting his father. When you quoted that, did you mean that you were God and being worshipped? No? Then how can you say what Jesus said was any different?
  • I hope that gives you a bit of an insight, and if there are any other questions, I will do my best, using the resources I have been given, to assist in answering your questions. I know that on this site there are many more qualified people who could answer them better for you. If you want to look for yourself, have a look at this website: www.watchtower.org You will find many articles that may answer your questions more specifically, deeply and accurately than I can state to you. Still, I am here to attempt an answer anytime. Well, except bedtime.lol, Oh, and a few other times. Still, most of the time, here I am if you want to chat mate.
  • What i claim from the bible that all human are called son of man but by some way Jesus become son of god ... how...why ??? we don't know
  • I copied this out of another article. Prehuman Existence. The person who became known as Jesus Christ did not begin life here on earth. He himself spoke of his prehuman heavenly life. (Joh 3:13; 6:38, 62; 8:23, 42, 58) John 1:1, 2 gives the heavenly name of the one who became Jesus, saying: “In the beginning the Word [Gr., Lo′gos] was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god [“was divine,” AT; Mo; or “of divine being,” Böhmer; Stage (both German)]. This one was in the beginning with God.” Since Jehovah is eternal and had no beginning (Ps 90:2; Re 15:3), the Word’s being with God from “the beginning” must here refer to the beginning of Jehovah’s creative works. This is confirmed by other texts identifying Jesus as “the firstborn of all creation,” “the beginning of the creation by God.” (Col 1:15; Re 1:1; 3:14) Thus the Scriptures identify the Word (Jesus in his prehuman existence) as God’s first creation, his firstborn Son. That Jehovah was truly the Father or Life-Giver to this firstborn Son and, hence, that this Son was actually a creature of God is evident from Jesus’ own statements. He pointed to God as the Source of his life, saying, “I live because of the Father.” According to the context, this meant that his life resulted from or was caused by his Father, even as the gaining of life by dying men would result from their faith in Jesus’ ransom sacrifice.—Joh 6:56, 57. If the estimates of modern-day scientists as to the age of the physical universe are anywhere near correct, Jesus’ existence as a spirit creature began thousands of millions of years prior to the creation of the first human. (Compare Mic 5:2.) This firstborn spirit Son was used by his Father in the creation of all other things. (Joh 1:3; Col 1:16, 17) This would include the millions of other spirit sons of Jehovah God’s heavenly family (Da 7:9, 10; Re 5:11), as well as the physical universe and the creatures originally produced within it. Logically, it was to this firstborn Son that Jehovah said: “Let us make man in our image, according to our likeness.” (Ge 1:26) All these other created things were not only created “through him” but also “for him,” as God’s Firstborn and the “heir of all things.”—Col 1:16; Heb 1:2. Not a co-Creator. The Son’s share in the creative works, however, did not make him a co-Creator with his Father. The power for creation came from God through his holy spirit, or active force. (Ge 1:2; Ps 33:6) And since Jehovah is the Source of all life, all animate creation, visible and invisible, owes its life to him. (Ps 36:9) Rather than a co-Creator, then, the Son was the agent or instrumentality through whom Jehovah, the Creator, worked. Jesus himself credited God with the creation, as do all the Scriptures.—Mt 19:4-6; see CREATION. Wisdom personified. What is recorded concerning the Word in the Scriptures fits remarkably the description given at Proverbs 8:22-31. There wisdom is personified, represented as though able to speak and act. (Pr 8:1) Many professed Christian writers of the early centuries of the Common Era understood this section to refer symbolically to God’s Son in his prehuman state. In view of the texts already considered, there can be no denying that that Son was “produced” by Jehovah “as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievements of long ago,” nor that the Son was “beside [Jehovah] as a master worker” during earth’s creation, as described in these verses of Proverbs. It is true that in Hebrew, which assigns gender to its nouns (as do many other languages), the word for “wisdom” is always in the feminine gender. This would continue to be the case even though wisdom is personified and so would not rule out wisdom’s being used figuratively to represent God’s firstborn Son. The Greek word for “love” in the expression “God is love” (1Jo 4:8) is also in the feminine gender but that does not make God feminine. Solomon, the principal writer of Proverbs (Pr 1:1), applied the title qo‧he′leth (congregator) to himself (Ec 1:1) and this word is also in the feminine gender. Wisdom is manifest only by being expressed in some way. God’s own wisdom was expressed in creation (Pr 3:19, 20) but through his Son. (Compare 1Co 8:6.) So, too, God’s wise purpose involving mankind is made manifest through, and summed up in, his Son, Jesus Christ. Thus, the apostle could say that Christ represents “the power of God and the wisdom of God” and that Christ Jesus “has become to us wisdom from God, also righteousness and sanctification and release by ransom.”—1Co 1:24, 30; compare 1Co 2:7, 8; Pr 8:1, 10, 18-21. How he is the “only-begotten Son.” Jesus’ being called the “only-begotten Son” (Joh 1:14; 3:16, 18; 1Jo 4:9) does not mean that the other spirit creatures produced were not God’s sons, for they are called sons as well. (Ge 6:2, 4; Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:4-7) However, by virtue of his being the sole direct creation of his Father, the firstborn Son was unique, different from all others of God’s sons, all of whom were created or begotten by Jehovah through that firstborn Son. So “the Word” was Jehovah’s “only-begotten Son” in a particular sense, even as Isaac was Abraham’s “only-begotten son” in a particular sense (his father already having another son but not by his wife Sarah).—Heb 11:17; Ge 16:15
  • Did you read those scriptures? It seems that you didn't get the opportunity to. The bible stated things. Just because God clothed them did not mean that God isn't a person of his word. It seems that this point is lacking in the discussion. God does what he says he is going to do, and I am sure that you appreciate Allah saying something and doing it. So when God said "From dust you are, and to dust you will return", it was indeed a punishment. There was no basis for an extra provision. As for clothing Adam and Eve, yes, indeed. Even Jesus says to clothe your enemy if he needs clothing. Still, it doesn't make the words go away. "From dust you are and to dust you will return", no mention of heaven. And if they didn't sin, they wouldn't have died. Where does heaven come in for Adam and Eve? Can you find a scripture to show me? There are none. If God hadn't mercifully dealt with Adam and Eve, there would indeed be no human race as we know it. Paul was an apostle of Christ. The Quran acknowledges apostles too, doesn't it. Yes, it does. So where in the Quran can you show me something that Mohommad wrote? Nowhere. It is because it was carried down orally, then eventually put down in writing. The reasoning is not reasonable to conclude that. Still, it has been an enjoyable discussion, although seems like we are running parallel, and our paths never seem to meet. Well, they do, as you and I both love God, but I mean about the ransom of Jesus. And it isn't me condemning Adam. The Bible does it. Did you get the opportunity to look at the scriptures in Genesis 3? Should look, and see what Moses wrote about it.
  • his body was man. It came from a woman. Therefor he was a son of man. But his spirit was that of God. Hope i helped.
  • This is in response to "borasalama Jun, 11 2009 at 08:55 AM" CREATION The act of creating, or causing the existence of, someone or something. It can also refer to that which has been created or brought into existence. The Hebrew ba‧ra’′ and the Greek kti′zo, both meaning “create,” are used exclusively with reference to divine creation. Throughout the Scriptures Jehovah God is identified as the Creator. He is “the Creator of the heavens, . . . the Former of the earth and the Maker of it.” (Isa 45:18) He is “the Former of the mountains and the Creator of the wind” (Am 4:13) and is “the One who made the heaven and the earth and the sea and all the things in them.” (Ac 4:24; 14:15; 17:24) “God . . . created all things.” (Eph 3:9) Jesus Christ recognized Jehovah as the One who created humans, making them male and female. (Mt 19:4; Mr 10:6) Hence, Jehovah is fittingly and uniquely called “the Creator.”—Isa 40:28. It is because of God’s will that all things “existed and were created.” (Re 4:11) Jehovah, who has existed for all time, was alone before creation had a beginning.—Ps 90:1, 2; 1Ti 1:17. While Jehovah, who is a Spirit (Joh 4:24; 2Co 3:17), has always existed, that is not true of the matter of which the universe is made. Hence, when creating the literal heavens and earth, Jehovah did not use preexistent material. This is clear from Genesis 1:1, which says: “In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.” If matter had always existed, it would have been inappropriate to use the term “beginning” with reference to material things. However, after creating the earth, God did form “from the ground every wild beast of the field and every flying creature of the heavens.” (Ge 2:19) He also formed man “out of dust from the ground,” blowing into his nostrils the breath of life so that the man became a living soul.—Ge 2:7. Appropriately Psalm 33:6 says: “By the word of Jehovah the heavens themselves were made, and by the spirit of his mouth all their army.” While the earth was yet “formless and waste,” with “darkness upon the surface of the watery deep,” it was God’s active force that was moving to and fro over the surface of the waters. (Ge 1:2) Thus, God used his active force, or “spirit” (Heb., ru′ach), to accomplish his creative purpose. The things he has created testify not only to his power but also to his Godship. (Jer 10:12; Ro 1:19, 20) And, as Jehovah “is a God, not of disorder, but of peace” (1Co 14:33), his creative work is marked with orderliness rather than chaos or chance. Jehovah reminded Job that He had taken specific steps in founding the earth and barricading the sea and indicated that there exist “statutes of the heavens.” (Job 38:1, 4-11, 31-33) Furthermore, God’s creative and other works are perfect.—De 32:4; Ec 3:14. Jehovah’s first creation was his “only-begotten Son” (Joh 3:16), “the beginning of the creation by God.” (Re 3:14) This one, “the firstborn of all creation,” was used by Jehovah in creating all other things, those in the heavens and those upon the earth, “the things visible and the things invisible.” (Col 1:15-17) John’s inspired testimony concerning this Son, the Word, is that “all things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence,” and the apostle identifies the Word as Jesus Christ, who had become flesh. (Joh 1:1-4, 10, 14, 17) As wisdom personified, this One is represented as saying, “Jehovah himself produced me as the beginning of his way,” and he tells of his association with God the Creator as Jehovah’s “master worker.” (Pr 8:12, 22-31) In view of the close association of Jehovah and his only-begotten Son in creative activity and because that Son is “the image of the invisible God” (Col 1:15; 2Co 4:4), it was evidently to His only-begotten Son and master worker that Jehovah spoke in saying, “Let us make man in our image.”—Ge 1:26. After creating his only-begotten Son, Jehovah used him in bringing the heavenly angels into existence. This preceded the founding of the earth, as Jehovah revealed when questioning Job and asking him: “Where did you happen to be when I founded the earth . . . when the morning stars joyfully cried out together, and all the sons of God began shouting in applause?” (Job 38:4-7) It was after the creation of these heavenly spirit creatures that the material heavens and earth and all elements were made, or brought into existence. And, since Jehovah is the one primarily responsible for all this creative work, it is ascribed to him.—Ne 9:6; Ps 136:1, 5-9.
  • Borasalama, you so often use only the parts of the Bible that you think that you understand and then you push in a nonchalant yet degrading way when people try to walk away in a peaceful way. Alot of people are able to part and just agree to disagree. You again use one scripture about making a defence to try to make me feel that if I do not continue that I am not a Christian. There are also times to wipe the dust off of your feet or a time to keep quiet as Jesus did sometimes and to turn down questionings that produce fights. (2Tim2:23-26; Ecc 3:7; Mat 27:14) (http://www.answerbag.com/q_view/1097404 Texasescimo19 on May 22, 2009 at 8:29 am Texasescimo May, 22 2009 at 01:06 PM “No one comes to the Father except through me.” He added: “Whatever it is that you ask in my name, I will do this, in order that the Father may be glorified in connection with the Son. If you ask anything in my name, I will do it.”—John 14:6, 13, 14. That is the way that I UNDERSTAND, TAKE CARE. borasalama May, 23 2009 at 01:28 AM "your last line tells me YOU DON'T WISH TO DISCUSS THE MATTER ANY FURTHER. It brings to mind 1 Peter 3:15 "be ready ALWAYS to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you" but I respect your wish and leave you with the greeting that Jesus used (Luke 24:36) and Muslims everywhere still do - salam eleikom. Texasescimo May, 23 2009 at 05:31 AM Borasalama my friend, it is obvious that your intent is not to seek knowledge.") http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2Tim2:23-26;%20Ecc3:7;%20Mat27:14;&version=47;31;9;49;77; /-/ In the same thread from up above, I gave you many scriptures as to my reasoning. You again held to one and tell me "I know what your solution to the problem would be "forget Christ - just follow the crowd". You take a scripture out of context and sum it up this way: ("borasalama May, 23 2009 at 12:32 PM" "1 I don't dispute Christ's claim that "no one comes to the Father except through me” Reason tells us that if his claim that he was sent by God was true then where else would anyone have gone if they wanted to be shown the correct way to God, but to Jesus? He UNDISPUTABLY was the way to God. . 2 You've probably identified one of my problems I "know the Bible well enough to understand" the simple concepts Jesus was teaching. So on the one hand I have that and on the other hand are the "concept that almost everyone else that reads the Bible agrees on" but which the Christ NEVER taught. I KNOW WHAT YOUR SOLUTION TO THE PROBLEM WOULD BE "FORGET CHRIST - JUST FOLLOW THE CROWD" I can see how being amongst the millions makes you feel secure, but I CAN'T SEE HOW YOU CAN CALL YOURSELF A FOLLOWER OF CHRIST.") /-/ You are relentless in picking apart anything you can and question every little detail, but when someone else ask you a question, you say it should be in another question box. ("sharpjwe33 on Nov 21, 2008 at 12:37 am" "borasalama Nov, 21 2008 at 03:26 AM" "who needs instructions on how to pray?" and "want is the purpose of prayer ?" are questions and should be posed in the question box.) /-/ Again under your same question from up above, you take one scripture and disregard all of the rest and sum it up with the following: ("Gregoreuo23 on May 22, 2009 at 5:50 am" "borasalama May, 22 2009 at 08:49 AM" "It is in Matthew 6:9-13 that Jesus teaches people how to pray to (none other than..) God. He tells them what words to use and he DID NOT include the phrase "through your son Jesus Christ"." By the rest of the scriptures, most people know that "Pray, then, in this way" does not mean "use these words only", as that would be using vain repetitions. It is just a model, it does not say disregard every other scripture that has to do with prayer. http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mat6:7;&version=15;8;9;49;16; /-/ http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mat6:9-15;&version=49;15;77;16;51; /-/ All of the above was just under one of your questions. You have a similar pattern on many of you questions. I personally do not mind you asking questions under the Christian section of AB. I really do not mind that once a question has been answered, that you follow up with another question. It is just the way that when someone figures out that discussing some things with you are pointless, you resort to a sly comment as if we are infedels and then make like you are leaving them in peace. Try letting people that do not agree with you, agree to disagree.
  • Is Jesus a god. “God” means a strong one. Christ is called “The mighty God” at Isaiah 9:6, “a god” at John 1:1,and “the only-begotten god” at John 1:18 .Jehovah is not the only god or strong one. The very fact that he is called the Almighty God indicates that there are other gods not so mighty, not almighty like him. So Thomas could call Jesus God, but not THE God, and three verses later Jesus is called “the Son of God,” as we read “But these have been written down that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God, and that, because of believing, you may have life by means of his name.” So there was no objection to John’s reporting that Thomas addressed Jesus as a deity, and certainly John does not say that Thomas’ address to Jesus was to make us believe that Jesus was The God, but says it was to make us believe Jesus was God’s Son. In this same chapter (20:17) Jesus said: “I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.” He was not ascending to himself
  • "The Son of Man" is a title out of the Book of Daniel and the inter-Testamental writings and Jewish apocalypticism, which was reasonably widespread throughout Judaism in the 1st centuries BC and AD. Though there are many theories as to how the view developed and why, all scholars agree that the view was this: God was so utterly holy and righteous that the slightest glimpse of Him, or contact with Him, by any created thing or being would instantly incinerate the creature. Even the Cherubim who stood around the Throne of God could not look upon Him. So that raised the question: "How can men know God? How can God have any contact or communication with creation?" They answered by concluding that there was a divine intermediary and agent plenopotentiary. Unlike the Cherubim and lesser angels, this being was uncreated: he had always existed as God's perfect and eternal companion. He was utterly submitted to God - so perfectly that God responded with perfect and total self-disclosure to him. This being even sat upon the Throne of God, created all that was created in the Name of God, and ruled it all in the Name of God. Though his authority and glory were contingent and dependent upon God, his perfect and total loyalty was rewarded with perfect ant total trust. This being consequently was as rigtheous as God, as glorious as God, wielding all the authority of God, manifesting God's nature and truth to all of Creation including the Heavenly Host. The idea was that if you wanted to know what God was like, the answer is, "Look upon him that sits upon the Throne." The Rabbis and apocalypticists had many names for the being: "God who reveals God" (vis-a-vis "The God who is God", the Angel of the Lord, Metatron, Divine Wisdom, little YHVH, the Memra (Logos in Greek), but the most common (following on the vision in Daniel) was "The Son of Man" who would come to judge the world, the living and the dead, on "the Great and Terrible Day of the Lord." This is exactly who Jesus claimed to be the incarnation of , and who the NT authors and the the early Church with one voice proclaimed him to be. Throughout the NT Jesus made such claims as: 1) all the angels of heaven are his angels 2) he was the one who spoke to and sent the prophets of old, and for whom they suffered and were persecuted 3) the whole of scripture is about him 4) that the greatest of "blessings" was to suffer for his sake 5) that he was the bridegroom of Israel (a title/sobriquet for YHVH) 6) that he would sit in judgment of the whole world 7) that "Before Abraham was I AM" But really, You would have no idea that Jesus referred to himself as The Son of Man except for the NT. These same documents present him as making inarguable claims to "He who sits upon the Throne of God". You can reject them in toto, or you can accept them in toto; but you can't just presume that one passage is authentic and another is not based upon nothing more than how much you like and dislike them, and which can be twisted to fit your own biases and which can't. The NT says what it says and means what it means. The authors were abolutely clear and in total agreement. The entire NT converges on single point: that in the person and work of Jesus Christ God revealed Himself for human salvation. You can't disregard 99% of what the NT clearly says and clearly means because you can twist a 1st century Jewish idiom with which you lack any familiarity into meaning something that supports your pet gripe. Deal with it.
  • +5. You know I am sick of these questions. They are designed to have faithful Christians answer them with scripture and from their hearts and then....blam. They get blasted and downrated. Look, we all admit you are the ultimate scholar when it comes to God. So, stop asking these questions because as long as Christians tell the truth, you will come back with your answers. I know that people who write these questions will not change their views even when given the truth so why if not just for hate, spite and a feeling of self worth do you write these questions ?
  • You must keep in mind that Christianity evolved in Greece - a culture in which gods regularly made young maidens pregnant (eg. Zeus + cute Greek girl = Hercules).
  • Romans 5:16 speaks of condemnation, specific to the subject too. So does 5:18. The rest of chapter 5 does show how Jesus has indeed bought us back from the condemnation given thanks to Adam.
  • The Word is not saying He is not a man or son of man in the context you are using it. Please do not take the Word of God out of context. Numbers 23:19 God is not a man, that he should lie, nor a son of man, that he should change his mind. Does he speak and then not act? Does he promise and not fulfill? The Word is saying that He is not like a man who would lie. Jesus was sinless, was He not? Therefore He didn't lie. The Word is saying He is not like a man who would speak and then not act. Jesus spoke healings and healings were performed. Jesus talked the talk and walked the walk throughout Scripture. The Word is saying He is not like a man to change His mind. Jesus stood for the truth throughout the crucifixion among other things in Scripture. The Word is saying that God is not like a man who promises and doesn't fulfill. Did Jesus not fulfill His promises?(The Resurrection, etc.) Finally, The Word here is obviously comparing God saying God is this certain way, different from every other man. Jesus was this certain way, different from every other man. Make the easy connection please.
  • poor silly humans.
  • Oh wow, you really thought you got everyone. Don't just stop at the Old Testament. I suggest you read the New Testament, since your question contradicts God's omnipotence. Keep in mind that nothing is impossible with God. (Luke 1:37)
  • god is spirit, hes not a person
  • In the Old Testament and New Testament is shows that Jesus and God were both the same. As in Jesus was God in the flesh. Jesus was fully man and fully God.

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