ANSWERS: 5
  • 3-21-2017 Nobody knows what God wants unless it is revealed in the bible. 2 Peter 1:3 says God has given all things, so there are no more revelations except they repeat or amplify what has already been revealed. The bible does not directly address the topic of time, but all the revelations are worded as if spirits follow time the same as humans do. Scientists think they have a better idea, so one day we might see a direct confrontation between scientific arrogance and godly wisdom. At least biblical revelations are in simple language, not at all like the "gee whiz" baloney and talking down that we get from scientists.
    • Anoname
      I really like your answer.
    • Linda Joy
      James 1:5 "If any of ye lack wisdom let him ask of God who give it to all men liberally and upbraideth not and it shall be given him." We are entitled to direct revelation for our personal lives that is not written in the Bible.
    • Anoname
      As long as the knowledge doesn't interfer with destiny.
    • Linda Joy
      I believe personal choice Trump's destiny besides probability wave functions disprove destiny. However God's will Trump's all.
  • I think our entire galaxy may very well be rotating around something else that we're not yet aware of. In order for time travel to take place we have to know exactly where the Earth was at that point in time which we cannot calculate if we don't have all the variables. We will just end up somewhere drifting in space where the Earth is not which is a lot more likely than ever being able to travel through time. But in the eternities I believe all of time is at the same time. Time as we understand it is connected to Earth
    • Anoname
      Everything in the known universe is being drawn towards a region of space known as the great attractor. Excellent observation on traveling to a place where our galaxy has moved on from.
    • Linda Joy
      Just something I felt. I haven't heard about the great attractor. I need to read up on that. Do you think it has to do with dark energy?
    • Anoname
      Nobody knows - maybe.
    • Linda Joy
      It is a concentration of dark energy.
    • Anoname
      You researched it ?
  • From scripture, it seems possible for Bible identities...like when Satan offered Jesus ALL the ' Kingdoms' of the world, in return for one act of worship...[ from Jesus to Satan] Jesus of course refused. Those ' kingdoms' were all powers right up to our present day...and not just up to Jesus' day. So did they just 'see' those improvements or actually travel 'here' ??? Both imply a sort of time travel. And because that situation did happen, it must have had Jehovah's approval...even to test Jesus.
    • Anoname
      Jesus and satan existed outside our time continuum before Earth's beginning. They are permitted a degree of foreknowledge. Man is currently finite and has his origin in this sphere of time. Would such insight be permitted for mortal men?
    • pugwashjw65
      Anoname...Not too far off...Jesus was the very FIRST creation of Jehovah's...(Colossians 1:15) He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; Not just of Mary, later, but of creation... Then the angels were created...before the universe... and they praised Jehovah for it. Satan was one of those angels who sought worship for himself [ wrongly [ So they both DID exist BEFORE the universe, which includes the earth.
    • Anoname
      I have defeated the Jesus as a created being arguement many times. I know better. The main disagreement is because the JW's have altered John 1:1 without legitimate basis as well as some of the scriptures that support that He is from eternity. In the altering of scriptures there were some passages that the JW's were unable to change to back the false idea that He was a created being. I'll try to look up my post on the subject so you can see my research but I can't promise I'll find it as it was on the older version of AB.
    • Anoname
      Looked back through the old AB posts but they didn't go back far enough. Fortunately I made physical copies of ALL my old posts. I'll dig it out and post it as a new answer sometime soon. It's a long post though.
    • pugwashjw65
      Hi Anoname...about your John 1;1..." (John 1:1) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. :A" god, means a spiritual being, and not Almighty God [ Jehovah...]...just like Satan is called the god of this system of things...2 Corinthians 4:4... Jesus prayed to Jehovah...he did not pray to himself in another form... And Proverbs8 states Jesus was created...by an identity greater than himself...it can only be Jehovah..Catholics state that this relates to the quality of wisdom...but how can a quality think and have 'fondness' for men?? Looking forward to your answer...Pugs,
    • Anoname
      Thank you for your polite response. I'm looking through my AB flashdrive right now for the data.
    • Anoname
      Answer is now complete and posted below.
    • Linda Joy
      Our spirits are eternal as well. They existed before the creation of the world and before the birth of our bodies. God spoke the creation and Jesus executed it.
  • Re: Jesus as a created entity ................................................................................................................. The verse in question is John 1:1 - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God ................................................................................................. The main issue is with the second clause as "God" does NOT have an article but "Word" does. "God" and "Word" are nouns. An article is a word that conveys a personal reference to the noun. The article is the English word "the"in each instance. The Greek words for "the" are hO in the nomitive cases and TON in the accusative cases. Accusative nouns attribute characteristics to the nomitive nouns when appropriate. A noun without an article is said to be "anarthrous". .................................................................................................................. The basic issue is what type of noun "God" is in the second clause: Definite or Indefinite. > Definite conveys the thought of - "the" God. > Indefinite would convey the thought of - "a" God. > For this verse the Greek possesses the definite article "the" but does NOT have the indefinite article "a" as found in the New World Translation published by the Jehovah's Witnesses. ................................................................................................................. The first clause uses the verb "with" which in the Greek is PROS and literally means "face to face". The verb in the second clause "was" is referred to as a "copulative". Copulatives predicates something about the subject. The direct object of a copulative verb is referred to as a Predicate Nomitive or PN for short. When there are two nouns then the one with the article (the Word) is the subject that receives attributes from the other noun (PN : God). Paul Dixon did a statistical analysis and concluded, "When the anarthrous predicate nomitive proceeds the verb it is qualitative 94% of the time." The majority of grammarians view "God"as qualitative. Qualitative nouns conveys ALL the attributes of the direct object to the subject while permitting individualization. ................................................................................................................. As shown "God" being a Qualitative-Definite supports the traditional Christian view that the Word has ALL (100%) of the attributes of God yet is an independent entity at the same time. 100% THE SAME AS THE FATHER. The official JW position is that Jesus is "a" lesser, albeit powerful, created God. Consider Isaiah 43: 10-11 where God said that He looked and found "NO other God" besides Himself. This would include a lesser created God; so this belief is unbiblical. ................................................................................................................. Back to John 1:1...More background on the eternal nature of the Word as it relates to this verse. The first 18 verses of John are in the form of a poem. His opening of "In the beginning" is a clear allusion to Genesis 1:1 that reads "In the beginning GOD..." In the place where "God" occurs in Genesis John places "was the Word". This interplay between the Word with God is a primary theme. Recent scholars point to Jewish Wisdom Tradition (also poetic in nature) as a source for the term LOGOS which John used to convey the term "Word" here.That tradition speaks of God's Word as having personal attributes. John's audience was familiar with THIS use of LOGOS as a personal attribute OF GOD and thus in some way a part of God. They would not have assumed the Word as another secondary created being whose creation appears nowhere. To the Hebrew "the Word of God" was the self-assertion of the devine personality; to the Greek this denotes the rational mind. Jesus was preexistent and involved in the act of creation. Without Him not anything was made that was made. This includes Himself. God was never mute, without His voice - His Word - Jesus. ................................................................................................................. As I've already said the verb "with" in the next part literally translates as "face to face". In this capacity it indicates equality and distinction of identity along with association and implys coexistance. The meaning is that of unity in nature. It could literally be rendered - When the beginning began, the Word was already here. This is the sense of EN which is in the imperfect tense and implys continuing existance in the past. The Word predates time or creation. ................................................................................................................... It is one of the core doctrines of Christianity to acknowledge Jesus' eternal nature and therefore why religions that deny this get classified as cults.
    • pugwashjw65
      But WHO spoke out of heaven? (Mark 9:7) And a cloud formed, overshadowing them, and a voice came out of the cloud: ?This is my Son, the beloved. Listen to him.? A clear separation of father and son...So Jesi\us cannot also be almighty God [ Jehovah] although he fully agrees with his father...that is what is meant by I and my father are one...not one identity but one in agreement. The English lesson was very good...cheers...pugs.
    • Anoname
      Re-read answer. You missed it. 100% equal yet PERMITTING INDIVIDUALITY.
    • Anoname
      This confusion happens when men try to impose human restrictions on God. When young you're someones son. You grow up and become a father, but don't cease being a son as well. Later you may even get to be a grandfather. We humans can't seperate these aspects of ourselves physically. God can. It shouldn't be surprising that He can do things we can't.
  • 6-15-2017 John 1:1 - "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." Everything God does, He does by speaking it. If you look at Genesis 1:1 that is what you find. God is His word. Not like a man, who may or may not be as good as his word. A word can be spoken, but words spoken by men are not God. A word may be written, but the bible is not god. And a word may be sent by a person, made flesh, so why do people take that word out of context and say that word is God when the other two are not? .
    • Anoname
      The Bible is called the LIVING Word of God. It's the Words themselves that are alive - not the paper or ink. Burn the paper and ink and God's Word will still remain. Destroy His body on a cross and God's Word still remains. In that way the Bible IS God. Man's words have no such life force although what we speak into this world does impact outcomes.

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