ANSWERS: 4
  • Yes you can. You are bound to your wife in a convenient with you, her and God. If she decides to break that convenient by having sex with someone else, you are no longer bound to her. By having sex, she has know been bound to a knew convenient. If she stays with the man and you still fantasize about her, you are actually committing a sin by fantasizing about another mans wife.
  • First you need to know what this verse really says and the words used. Fornication does not mean singles sex but that of committing adultery against the Lord God by having intercourse with fertility temple goddesses thereby putting other gods before the Lord God. Divorcing the wife to marry another woman is committing adultery. because he is breaking his wedding vows. Breaking wedding vows does not necessarily mean sex with someone other than the marriage partner. Failing to provide for his wife as prescribed in Exodus 21:10 has committed adultery. This is one of those cases where man has again twisted the meaning of a verse without knowing what the words mean or how they are spoken at the time of writing vs how we do it today. This is why so many think the Bible is so restricting. Actually if you know what the Bible really says it is much more liberating.
  • What is the only Scriptural basis for divorce among Christians? Jesus Christ, in his Sermon on the Mount, stated:
  • 5-20-2017 To understand the bible, the first thing you have to get straight is TO WHOM IT IS ADDRESSED. If you got a letter addressed to your uncle, you could read it and learn from it, but when it says to do something, you are not bound by that command because it is not addressed to you. Portions of the bible are addressed to Jews, gentiles, the church of God, and subgroups within those groups. Jesus was a Jew speaking to Jews, so everything he said has to be interpreted in the light of Jewish law. They all lived in the middle east, so many things refer to middle eastern culture, which has little resemblance to western culture. In America we say "adultery" and everybody assumes that means illicit sex when one or both partners are married to someone else. The word also means "offering a mixed substance when only the pure substance is acceptable". There has to be an element of fraud. The commandment about adultery refers to mixed worship, not illicit sex. Marriage in the middle east was not at all like marriage in the west. A spouse did not simply "leave", because there was no place to go. Everybody in town knew everybody, and wild animals lived outside the town. (That's why they had walls around the town.) In that culture there was no employment of women. None zip zero nada goose egg. Bottom line: there is no straight answer without considerable research into an unfamiliar society. Fortunately that does not apply to Christians because it was not addressed to us.

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